#MCQs

Interpretation of statutes MCQs

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MCQs- IOS(INTERPRETATION OF STATUTES)

You may download the pdf file given at the end of this page.

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1.  There is no need for presumptions? 

     a. The intention of the legislation is clear 

     b. The intention of the legislation is not clear 

     c. Can be used in any condition 

     d. All of the above 

2. Where in an enactment, there are two provisions which cannot be reconciled with each other; they should be so interpreted that, if possible effect may be given to both. This is what known as the_____________ 

a. Rule of harmonious construction 

b. Rule of reasonable construction 

c. Rule of ejusdem generis 

3. According to the ________ rule of interpretation, meaning of a word should be known from its Accompany ignore associating words? 

a. Mischief rule 

b. Golden rule 

c. Noscitur a sociis 

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d. Primary rule 

4.________means that contemp or an eousex position is the best and strongest in law? 

a. Ejusdem generis 

b. Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima in Lege 

c. Noscitur a sociis 

d. None of above 

5. Interpretation of statute should not be given a meaning which would make other________ Provisions? 

a. In effective 

b. Redundant 

c. Dormant 

d. None of the above 

6. Rule of ejusdem generis is applicable when__________? 

a. Specific word follow general words 

b. General word follows specific words 

c. Either (a) or (b) 

d. Both (a) and (b) 

7. According to which rule of interpretation old statutes should be interpreted as they would Have been at the date when they were passed? 

a. Expression unisest exclusion alteri us 

b. Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima In Lege 

c. Futuresmag is valeat Quam Pereat 

d..Nosciur a Sociis 

8. According to primary rule, the ________of a statute are to be understood in the natural, ordinary or popular and grammatical meaning unless such a construction leads to an Absurdity or contents or object of the statute suggests a different meaning? 

a. Words 

b. Phrase 

c. Sentences 

d. All of above 

9. If you were looking for them earning of provision, the first place you would look is______? 

a. A dictionary 

b. The interne 

c. The definition section 

d. Any of the above 

10._______sets out in general terms, the purpose of the Act and it often precedes the preamble? 

a. Long title 

b. Short title 

c. Preamble 

d. None of above 

11. Which of the following is an external aid for interpretation of statute? 

a. Parliamentary history 

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b. Use of foreign decisions 

c. Historical background 

d. All of above 

12. When statute does not profess to make any alteration in the existing law, but merely declare Or explain what it is, then such law is known as________? 

a. Codifying statute 

b. Remedial statute 

c. Declaratory statute 

d. Consolidating statute 

13. According to the _________the words, phrases, sentences so fast a tute are to be understood In their natural, ordinary or popular and grammatical meaning, unless such a construction Leads to an absurdity or contents or object of the statute suggests a different meaning? 

a. Literal construction 

b. Mischief rule 

c. Strict rule of interpretation 

d. None of above 

14. Which of the following is internal aid for interpretation of statute? 

a. Long title 

b. Marginal notes 

c. Interpretation clauses 

d. All of above 

15. As per the rule of _________meaning of a word should be known from its accompanying or Associating words. 

a. Noscitur a sociis 

b. Strict and liberal construction 

c. Ejusdem generis 

d. None of the above 

16. Which of the following are acceptable extrinsic material use in interpreting legislation? 

a. Parliamentary committee reports 

b. Dictionaries 

c. Notes on Clauses of the bill 

d. All of above 

17. Generally ____________are given strict interpretation? 

a. Labour

b. Welfare laws 

c. Criminal laws 

d. None of the above 

18. If there is any appearance of consistency between the schedule and specific provision in An enactment, the ________ shall prevail? 

a.Schedule 

b. Provisions 

c. Both will be applicable as per situation 

d. None of the above 

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19. Heydon’s case deals with____? 

a. Mischief rule 

b. Rule of reasonable construction 

c. Noscitur a sociis

d. Golden rule 

20. Non obstante clause usually starts with the word___? 

a. Provided that 

b. Notwithstanding anything contained 

c. Save as provided otherwise 

d. Any of the above 

21._____is used to remove special cases from the general enactment and provide for them specially? 

a. Exception clause 

b. Saving clause 

c. Proviso 

d. Non obstante clause 

22. Ut Res Magis Valeat Quam Pareatis also known as______? 

a. Rule of harmonious construction 

b. Rule of reasonable construction 

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c. Rule of ejusdem generis 

d. All of above 

23.________contain them an object of the act? 

a. Long title 

b .Short title 

c. Preamble 

d. None of the above 

24 .Heydon’s case,in 1584,was resolved by the? 

a. Supreme Court of India 

b. Bombay high court 

c. Barons of the Exchequer 

d. House of lords 

25. When a general word follows a specific word of a distinct category, the general word may be given a striated meaning of the same category. His general word take its meaning from Preceding expression. This is what is known as? 

a. Rule of harmonies construction 

b. Ut Res Magis Valeat Quam Pereat 

c. Ejusdem generis 

d. Expression unisest exclusion alteri us 

26. In the interpretation of the statue, an important role is played by____ 

a. Schedule 

b. Preamble 

c. Heading 

d. All of above 

27. While constructing a provision in penal statute if there appears to be a reasonable doubt or Ambiguity it shall be solved in favour of? 

a. State government 

b. Union 

c. Person who would be liable to penalty 

d. None of the above 

28. Which of the following is internal aid for interpretation of statute? 

a. Reference to reports of committee

b. Statement of objects and reasons 

c. Dictionaries 

d. Preamble 

29. The rules______means the express mention of one thing is the exclusion of other? 

a. Rule of harmonious construction 

b. Primary rule 

c. Ejusdem generis 

d. Expressio Unius est exclusio alterius 

30.Internal aid in interpretation of statute includes? 

a. Title 

b. Preamble 

c. Marginal notes 

d. All of above 

31. A statute has been defined as the______ 

a. Will of the king 

b. Will of the society 

c. Will of them magistrate 

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d. Will of the legislature 

32. What is the doctrine of stare decisis? 

a. The doctrine of Parliamentary sovereignty 

b. The doctrine of royal pardon 

c. The doctrine of statutory interpretation 

d. The doctrine of precedent 

33. What is case law? 

a. Law representing the decisions of the courts 

b. Law passed by Parliament 

c. Delegated legislation 

d. Case law is not really law at all 

34. What is legislation? 

a. Legislation is law made by judges 

b. Legislation is law made by Parliament 

c. Legislation is law made by custom 

d. Legislation is law made by the Law Commission 

35. How many readings must a Bill have in the House of Commons and the House of Lords Before it receives Royal Assent? 

a. 1 in the House of Commons, 3in the House of Lords 

b. 3 in the House of Commons,1in the House of Lords 

c. 1 in each House 

d. 3 in each House 

36. What is the Committee Stage in the passage of a Bill through the House of Commons? 

a. A committee reading of the title of the Bill 

b. A committee debating the general principles of a Bill 

c. A committee considering the provisions of the Bill in detail 

d. A committee drafting the Bill 

37. How long can the House of Lords delay a Bill (except a Money Bill)? 

a.1 month 

b.6 months 

c.1 year 

d.6 years 

38. What is a Public Act? 

a. An Act affecting particular individuals or individual bodies 

b. An Act affecting the general public 

c. An Act made in private 

d. An Act made in public 

To see all the answers please download the pdf file at the bottom

39. What is meant by statutory interpretation? 

a. The interpretation of a statute by Parliament 

b. The interpretation of a statute by the House of Commons 

c. The interpretation of a statute by the courts 

d. The interpretation of a statute by the House of Lords 

40. What is meant by the purposive approach? 

a. The judge must interpret the statute on purpose 

b.The judge must interpret the statute in the light of the purpose its enactment 

c. The judge must interpret the statute with a purposeful manner 

d. The judge must interpret the statute in the purpose of deciding the case before him or her 

41. What is them is chief rule? 

a. In interpreting statutes, judges should look at the ‘mischief’ which the Act was passed to prevent 

b. There must be no mischief in court c. In interpreting statutes, judges should interpret the words literally 

d. In interpreting statutes, judges should interpret the words as they see fit 

42. What is the rule in Pepper V Hart? 

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a. Judges can refer to newspapers when interpreting statutes 

b. Judges can refer to other judges when interpreting statutes 

c. Judges can refer to Hansard when interpreting statutes 

d. Judges cannot refer to any external aid when interpreting statutes 

43. What is delegated legislation? 

a. A decision of the courts 

b. An Act of Parliament 

c. Law made by a delegation 

d. Law made by a person or body to whom Parliament has delegated power 

44. Which of these is a disadvantage of delegated legislation? 

a. It is quick to produce 

b. It can be flexible 

c. It raises issues of accountability 

d. It can be made by reference to special is knowledge 

45. A statute may be interpreted by judges by using different rules. Which of the following is not a rule of interpretation? 

a.Golden Rule. 

b. Literal Rule. 

c. Mischief Rule. 

d. General Rule. 

46. Which of the following statements is a definition of the phrase ‘ratio decidendi’? 

a. The verdict 

b. The material facts. 

c. A hypothetical situation. 

d. The legal reason for reaching a decision. 

47. Which of the following statements is correct? 

a. The Supreme Court is bound by its own previous cases. 

b. The House of Lords is the highest court of appeal in England and Wales. 

c. There are no appeals from decisions of the Court of Appeal. 

d. A principle of law set down in a case may be overruled by statute. 

48. Which of the following is the most accurate description of the Golden Rule of Interpretation? a. Justice must be served 

b. Literal meaning must always be adopted without fail 

c. Literal meaning must always be adopted except when it leads to absurdity 

d. All of the above 

e. Context must be understood properly 

49. Illustration: Hindustan Lever Emplills Company Limited (TOMCO) and Hindustan Lever Limited were in dispute. The employees of both Hindustan Lever Limited and TOMCO were concerned about the amalgamation. One of the grounds of attack against the scheme was the absence of approval of the central government as required under S.23 of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969. That, however, was deleted in 1991. The Supreme Court stated that it is significant to take into account the mischief that was sought to be cured through the amendment of the statute. Accordingly, the court held that once the said section has been deleted from the statute book, the requirement of prior approval of the Central Government cannot be brought back through the backdoor. The Supreme Court was applying what rule of interpretation?

a. Deletion Rule 

b. Mischief Rule 

c. Literal Rule 

d. Ejusdem Generis 

e. both a) and d) 

50. Illustration: In the phrase ‘horses, cattle, sheep, pigs, goats, or any other farm animal’, the general language ‘or any other farm animal’ — despite its seeming breadth — would probably be held to include only four-legged, hoofed mammals typically found on farms, and thus would exclude chickens. This is an example of which rule of interpretation? 

a. Ejusdem Generis 

b. noscitur a sociis 

c. Literal Rule 

d. Both a) and b) 

51. What Statute is an aid in the interpretation of Statutes? 

a. General Clauses Act, 1897 

b. Interpretation of Statutes Act, 1897 

c. Law of Legislations, 1897 

d. All of the above 

52. While applying the literal rule of interpretation, it is important to keep in mind the: 

a. language 

b. theme 

c. context 

d. applicability 

53. Illustration: While interpreting a statute, one has internal and external aids to construction. Question: Which of the following in not an Internal aid to construction? 

a. long title 

b. preamble 

c. headings 

d. definitions 

e. Parliamentary history 

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54. Delegatus non potest delegare 

a. Debtor follows the person of the debtor 

b. An action does not arise from a bare promise 

c. A delegated power cannot be further delegated 

d. The law does not concern itself with trifling matters 

55. expressum facit cessare tacitum 

a. Private disadvantage is counterbalanced by public good. 

b. The reason for a decision. 

c. . An action does not arise from a bare promise 

d, express mention of one person or thing is exclusion of another. 

56. Generalia specialibus non derogant 

a. The king can do no wrong. 

b. general things do not derogate from special things. 

c. The land passes with its burdens. 

d. An accessory follows the principal. 

57. Utres valet potior quam pareat. 

a. it may rather become operative than null”. 

b. A matter adjudged is taken for truth. 

c. An accessory follows the principal. 

d. The land passes with its burdens. 

58. Expressum facit cessare tacitum. 

a. Private disadvantage is counter balanced by public good. 

b. what is expressed makes what is implied to cease. 

c. An accessory follows the principal. 

d. A matter adjudged is taken for truth. 

59. Judicium semper pro veritate accipitur 

a. A judgment always accepted as true 

b. A judgment pronounced by a judge to decide in a matter falling within his jurisdiction is of no effect 

c. In equal delict, the position of the defender is the stronger 

d. The immediate and not the remote cause is to be considered 

60. Supreme Courts precedent in binding on 

a. Courts 

b. Appellate Tribunals 

c. Income Tax Authorities 

d. All of the above. 

61. In which of the following cases free and fair election is recognized as basic structure of Indian Constitution? 

a. Indira Gandhi V- Raj Narayan 

b. Minerva Mills V- Union of India 

c. Both (A) and (B) above 

d. None of the above 

62. Doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by 

a. Plato 

b. Montesquieu 

c. Dicey 

d. Aristotle 

63. ‘Rule of Law’ means 

a. Supremacy of Judiciary 

b. Supremacy of Law 

c. Equality before Law 

d. Supremacy of Parliament 

64. Which one of the following statements is true? 

a. Delegated legislation cannot have retrospective effect 

b. Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if authorized by Act or Statute

c. Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if not authorized by Act or Statute but have reasonable and rational justification

d. None of the above

65. Which of the following interpretations of the Constitution regarding the utility of Directives is/are found to be correct? I. Even though the implementation of a Directive Principle may cause hardship to a few individu-als, it should be upheld in the larger interests of the community. II. In view of the absolute prohibition of consumption of liquor in Article 47, there cannot be any fundamental right to manufacture and sell intoxicating liquor. 

a. I and II 

b. Neither I nor II 

c. Only I 

d. Only II 

66. The legislative process includes the process of implementing and enforcing the law once made

a True 

b False 

67. Which of the following statements accurately capture Dicey’s view on the limitations which exist on Parliament’s law-making powers? 

a. Parliament’s law-making powers are subject to external and internal political limits. 

b. Parliament’s law-making powers are not subject to any limits. 

c. Parliament’s law-making powers are subject to legal limitations. 

d. Parliament’s law-making powers are subject to legal and political limitations. 

68. who is the final answer to interpret the constitution 

a. The President 

b. The Parliament 

c. The lok Sabha 

d. The Supreme Court 

69. The power of Supreme Court to decide the dispute between the centre and the states falls under its 

a. Advisory Jurisdiction 

b. Appellate Jurisdiction 

c. Original Jurisdiction 

d. Advisory and appellate Jurisdiction 

70. When may judges apply the golden rule? 

a. When the mischief rule can’t be applied 

b. In the same circumstances as the purposive approach 

c. When applying the literal would be unfair 

d. When applying the literal rule leads to an absurd or repugnant result 

71. According to the ___________ rule, the words of the statute are to be given their plain and ordinary meaning. 

a. Literal rule 

b. golden rule 

c. natural rule 

d. mischief rule 

72. Which rule of statutory interpretation should judges apply first? 

a. Purposive approach 

b. Mischief rule 

c. Golden rule 

d. Literal rule 

73. The concept of the Judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of 

(a) U.K. 

(b) Switzerland 

(c) U.S.A 

(d) U.S.S.R 

74. 7. The idea of ‘concurrent list’ in the Indian constitution is taken from the Constitution of…………? 

a. Ireland 

b. Canada 

c. Australia 

d. Japan 

75. What are the four factors the courts are required to consider according to Heydon’s case? 

a. What was the mischief and defect for which the common law did not provide? 

b. What was the common law before the Act was passed? 

c. What was the remedy Parliament passed to cure the mischief? 

d. All are above 

76. When may judges apply the mischief rule? 

a. When there is ambiguity in the statute 

b. When there is absurdity 

c. When the law needs to be changed 

d. When not to do so would lead to injustice 

77. Under the _________________ rule the words may be given a secondary meaning if applying the literal leads to absurdity. 

a. mischief rule 

b. golden rule 

c. liber rule 

d. none of above 

78. The Union List consists of 

a. 97 subjects 

b. 61 subjects 

c. 47 subjects 

d. 73 subjects 

79. An interpretation of the Constitution of India is based on the spirit of 

a. Fundamental Duties 

b. Fundamental Rights 

c. Preamble 

d. Federal System 

80. The sequence of procedure for passing a Bill in the House is 

a. First reading, Committee stage, report stage, second reading, third reading 

b. First reading, second reading, committee stage, report stage, third reading 

c. First reading, second reading, third reading, Committee stage, report stage 

d. First reading, Committee stage, second reading, third reading 

81. In a federal system the guardian of the Constitution is 

a. the Parliament 

b. the Judiciary 

c. the council of Ministers 

d. the National Security Advisor 

82. The Union Legislature in India is empowered 

a. Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution 

b. to amend the basic structure of the Constitution 

c. To abrogate the basic structure 

d. None of these 

83. The states enjoy exclusive jurisdiction over subjects of 

a. Union list 

b. State list 

c. Residuary List 

d. Concurrent list 

84. Majority provisions of the Constitution of India can be amended by 

a. the Parliament 

b. The President 

c. the State Legislature 

d. the Parliament of the consent of states 

85. The procedure for amending the Constitution is in 

a. Article 368 

b. Article 360 

c. Article 367 

d. Article 371 

86. The list dividing powers between union and states are given in the ————- schedule 

a. IV 

b. V 

c. VI 

d. VII 

87. Operation of law means….. 

a. prospective operation of law 

b. retrospective operation of law 

c. both as above a and b 

d. none of above 

88. What does repeal of law mean? 

a. change in law 

b. amendment in law 

c. removal or reversal of law. 

d. none of above 

89. General clauses Act enacted in the year… 

a. March 11, 1897 

b. January 15, 1920 

c. August 15 1987 

d. December 31, 1975 

90. The term morals refer… 

a. ethics or principles 

b. legal rules by a competent authority . 

c. only above a is correct 

d. both a and b correct. 

91. What is similarity in law and morals? 

a. both regulate human conduct 

b. both not regulate human conduct 

c. both use similar language 

d. above a and c is correct 

92. Morals have …… 

a. Universal values 

b. various from society to society 

c. various from time to time 

d. various from person to person. 

93. Law looks to….. 

a. external conduct 

b. internal conduct 

c. both a and b 

d. none of above 

94. The statutes dealing with tax are termed as…

a. civil statues 

b. penal statute 

c. fiscal statutes. 

d. personal statutes 

95. When there is a conflict between two or more statues or two or more parts of a statute then the rule 

a. welfare construction 

b. strict construction 

c. harmonious construction 

d. none of above 

96. Pith and substance is a legal doctrine in —– 

a. Canadian constitutional interpretation 

b. Indian constitutional interpretation 

c. Indian and Canadian Constitutional interpretation 

d. none of above 

97. The doctrine of colorable legislation refers to the 

a. question of competency of the legislature 

b. question of fact 

c. question of jurisdiction 

d . nature of legislation 

98. Repugnancy as an inconsistency or contradiction between two or more parts of a legal instrument 

a. true 

b. false 

c. can’t say 

99. Law Commission of India is an executive body 

a. executive body 

b. judicial body 

c. legislative body 

d. quasi-judicial body 

100. The first Law Commission was established during the British Raj era in 1834 

a. 1834 

b. 1836 

c. 1860 

d. 1881 

101. An aid that expresses the scope, object and purpose of the Act– 

Title of the Act

Heading of the Chapter

Interpretation clause

Preamble

102. Formal legal document which creates or confirms a right or record a fact is a

Instrument

Statute

Document

Deed

103.The meaning of a word is derived from its associated words, i.e. the meaning of a word is to be judged by the company it keeps. This is as per __________

‘Ejusdem Generis’

Noscitur A Sociis

Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius

Contemporanea Expositio

104.The rule of Ejusdem Generis is applied to construe ________

The general word(s)

The associated words

The specific word(s)

The unrelated words

105. Rule of Beneficial construction is also known as—

Purposive construction

Mischief Rule

Heydons’s Rule

All of the Above

106. Speech of mover of bill at the time of introduction of the bill, the history of the external circumstances which led to the enactment of the statue, amendments considered during the progress of the bill, statement of objects and reasons, report of a committee which examined the bill are the examples of _____.

Historical setting

Consolidating statutes and previous laws

Earlier and later acts and analogous acts

Internal aids

107.An internal aid that may be added to include something within the section or to exclude something from it, is

Proviso

Schedule

Explanation

Illustrations

108. Rule of Reasonable Construction is based on the maxim

Absolut Sententia expositore non-indigent

Ut res magis valeat quam pereat

Qui facit per alium facit per se

Contemporanea expositio

109. Which among the following is the cardinal rule of construction of statutes

Literal Rule of construction

Beneficial Rule of construction

Harmonious Rule of construction

Reasonable Rule of construction

110. Which rule of construction is applicable where there is a real and not merely apparent conflict between the provisions of an Act, and one of them has not been made subject to the other—

Rule of Beneficial construction

Rule of Harmonious construction

Rule of Literal construction

Rule of Exceptional construction

111. As per ___________, if two or more words which are capable of analogous (similar or parallel) meaning are grouped together they should be understood in cognate sense, i.e. they take their colour from each other and are given a similar or related meaning

Noscitur A Sociis

Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius

 Ejusdem Generis

Contemporanea Expositio

112. Pick the odd one out of the following aids to interpretation

Preamble

Marginal Notes

Proviso

Usage

113. Statement (1): A substantial compliance of a mandatory provision is sufficient unless it results in loss or prejudice to the other party.

Statement (2): Non-observance of a mandatory provision does not invalidate the act done; whatever consequences may occur

Only statement (1) is correct

Only statement (2) is correct

Both the above statements are correct

None of the above statements is correct

114. ____________ is an internal aid in interpretation of statutes

Schedules, headings and title of a chapter and marginal notes

Headings and title of a chapter and marginal notes

Schedules and marginal notes

Schedules

115. If it is impossible to harmonise the two conflicting provisions, the provision enacted ____________ in point of time shall prevail.

Later

Earlier

Either (a) or (b)

None of these

116. If two provisions are joined by the conjunction ‘and’, requirements of both the provisions should be satisfied. If two provisions are separated by the word ‘or’, satisfying the requirements of any of the two provisions would be sufficient. However, at times, these words may be read as vice-versa to give effect to the intention of the legislature. This is as per ___

Noscitur A Sociis

Rule of Exceptional Construction

Rule of Ejusdem Generis

Rule of literal interpretation

117. ________ is the process of ascertaining the true meaning of the words used in a statute

Interpretation

Construction

Both (a) and (b)

Evaluation

118. Generally, full effect must be given to every word contained in a Statute. However, words in a statue may be eliminated if no sensible meaning can be drawn. This is as per ____

Rule of literal interpretation

Rule of harmonious construction

Rule of Exceptional Construction

Noscitur A Sociis

119. Statement (1): The illustrations cannot curtail the scope of a section.

Statement (2): The illustrations can expand the scope of a section.

Statement (3): if there is a conflict between the section and an illustration, the section will prevail

Only one of above statement is correct

Only two of the above statements is correct

All the above statements are correct

None of the above statements is correct

120. _______ is not a secondary rule of interpretation

‘Ejusdem Generis’

Noscitur A Sociis

Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius

Contemporanea Expositio

121. The term __________ means ‘of the same class or species’, i.e. ‘of the same kind’

Ejusdem Generis

Noscitur A Sociis

Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius

Contemporanea Expositio

122. An internal aid that may be added to include something within the section or to exclude something from it, is—

Proviso

Explanation

Schedule

Illustrations

123. ________ expresses the scope and object of the act more comprehensively than the _________

The preamble; long title

Short title; long title

Short title; preamble

Long title; preamble

124. Whether a provision is mandatory or directory _______

Can be ascertained by referring to the provisions of the General Clause Act, 1897

Is specified in the statue in which such provision is contained

Has to be decided by the court

None of these

125. A statute should be first read as a whole. Then, it must be read section by section, clause by clause and word by word. It would enable the discovery of the true meaning of each section, clause and word and how these sections, clauses and words fit into the scheme of the Act. No part of the Statue can be constructed in isolation. This methodology is adopted in ____

        Rule of Harmonious Construction

Rule of Reasonable Interpretation

Rule of Literal Interpretation

Rule of Exceptional Construction

126. If the _________ used in a statute makes it clear that a ________ sense is intended, the rule of Ejusdem Generis shall not apply.

Specific words, narrow

Specific words, wider

General words, narrow

General words, wider

127. ____________ is also known as Heydon’s Rule and Mischief Rule.

The rule of Beneficial Construction

The rule of Ejusdem Generis

The rule of Exceptional Construction

Noscitur A Sociis

128. Where the words are clear, the language is plain, and only 1 meaning can be derived, it would mean that the language used speaks the mind of the parliament and there is no need to look somewhere else to discover the true intention and meaning of the words used. The interpretation in such case shall be ________

Reasonable interpretation

Harmonious interpretation

Literal interpretation

Exceptional interpretation

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