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• Which agency is responsible for enforcement of the Foreign Exchange Management Act and certain provisions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act—
  • Enforcement Directorate
  • Central Bureau of Investigation
  • Central Vigilance Commission
  • None of the above

Answer: a

• The trial of the offences of money laundering are conducted by—
  • Civil Courts
  • Sessions Court
  • Special Courts
  • First class Magistrate

Answer: c

• The authorities under the PMLA that have been constituted to carry out the proceedings related to attachment and confiscation of any property derived from money laundering, include—
  • The Director, Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate Tribunal.
  • The Director and Adjudicating Authority.
  • The Director.
  • None of the above.

Answer: a

• The PML Act seeks to combat money laundering in India and has the following objectives—
  • To prevent and control money laundering and to confiscate and seize the property obtained from the laundered money, and
  • To deal with any other issue connected with money laundering in India.
  • Both A and B
  • None of the above

Answer: c

• The Adjudicating Authority under the PMLA comprises of—
  • three Members
  • five Members
  • seven Members
  • ten Members

Answer: a

• The apex institution for vigilance in India is
  • CBI
  • CVC
  • RTI
  • ED

Answer: b

• In matters concerning the life and liberty of an individual, the Public Information Officer is expected to furnish the reply to an RTI application within—
  • 48 hours
  • 60 hours
  • Both a and b depending on the case
  • Only a

Answer: a

• What is the age criteria to file an RTI application?
  • 18 years and above
  • 45 years and above
  • 16 years and above
  • No age bar

                           Answer: d

• The preamble of the RTI Act states that informed citizenry and transparency of information is vital to—
  • Eradicate Corruption
  • Promote Corruption
  • Contain Corruption
  • Measure Corruption

                          Answer: c

• The time limit specified in the RTI Act, 2005 for the central / state Information Commissions to decide on complaints is
  • 15 days
  • One month
  • Two months
  • No such time limit has been specified

                    Answer: d

• What does Right to information mean?

a. Inspect works, documents and records.

b. Take notes, extract or certified copies of documents or records.

c. Take certified copies of documents or records.

d. All the above

Ans. D

• The provision of Suo moto disclosure is contained in

a. Section 4 of RTI Act

b. Section 11 of RTI Act

c. Section 22 of RTI Act

d. Section 24 of RTI Act

Ans. a

• Which of the following is existing legal and institutional framework to check corruption and redress citizen’s grievances in India.

Lokayukta and Supreme Court

Supreme Court and Lokapal

Lokpal and Lokayukta

Administrative Tribunals and Lokpal

Ans . a

• Which was the first Indian State to establish the Institution of Lokayukta ?

a. Bihar

b. Uttar Pradesh

c. Andhra Pradesh                     

d. Maharashtra

Ans. d

• Which was the first Commonwealth Country in the world to adopt the Ombudsmen system?
  • India
  • Sweden
  • New Zealand
  • United Kingdom

Ans.  c

• The specific Purpose of the Institution of Lokpal is to—
  • Strengthen  legislative control over administration
  • Supplement judicial control over administration
  • Protect and promote integrity in administration
  • Enable effective popular control over administration

                    Ans. c.

• Consider the following statements.
• Ombudsman is a government official who investigate  citizens complaint against the high   government functionaries
• The central vigilance commission is deigned to inquire into allegations of corruption by administrative official of the state government as well as union government.

             Which of the statement given above is correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I & II
4. Neither I nor II

                    Ans. a.

• When did The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, enacted?

A) 01 April 1988
B) 05 March 1988
C) 09 September 1988
D) 23 April 1988

Answer –09 September 1988

• Which section of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988 deals with the Offense relating to bribing a public servant by a commercial organization.
  ?

A. Section 12 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
B. Section 9 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
C. Section 14 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
D. Section 20 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

Answer B. Section 9 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

• Which section of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988deals with Matters to be taken into consideration for fixing fines._?

A. Section 16 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
B. Section 14 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
C. Section 13 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
D. Section 18 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

Answer – A. Section 16 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

• Section 25 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988deals with_______?

A. Punishment for abetment of offenses
B. Military, Naval, and Air Force or other law not to be affected
C. Punishment for attempt
D. Cases triable by special Judges

Ans- B. Military, Naval, and Air Force or other law not to be affected

• Accused person to be a competent witness, is provided in section____ of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

A. Section 24 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
B. Section 22 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
C. Section 21 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
D. Section 23 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

Ans- C. Section 21 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

• Section 17 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988 provides _?

A.Persons authorized to investigate
B. Criminal misconduct by a public servant
C.Offence relating to bribing a public servant by a commercial organization
D.Act to be in addition to any other law

Ans – A.Persons authorized to investigate

• Which section of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988 deals with the Procedure and powers of special Judge?

A. Section 7 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
B. Section 4 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
C. Section 5 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
D. Section 9 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

Answer – C. Section 5 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

• Section 12 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988 deals with_______?

A. Punishment for abetment of offenses
B. Presumption where public servant accepts any undue advantage
C.Person in charge of a commercial organization to be guilty of offense.
D.Accused person to be a competent witness

Ans- A. Punishment for abetment of offenses

• Which section of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988 deals with the Punishment for habitual offender?

A. Section 17 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
B. Section 19 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
C. Section 14 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988
D. Section 15 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

Answer – C. Section 14 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

• Section 10 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988 deals with_______?

A. Power to appoint special Judges
B. Act to be in addition to any other law
C. Person in charge of a commercial organization to be guilty of offense
D. Military, Naval and Air Force or other law not to be affected

Answer- C. Person in charge of a commercial organization to be guilty of offense

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• If a public servant takes gratification other than his legal remuneration in respect of an official act or to influence public servants is liable to—
  • minimum punishment of six months and maximum punishment of three years and fine.
  • minimum punishment of six months and maximum punishment of five years and fine.
  • minimum punishment of three years and maximum punishment of five years and fine.
  • minimum punishment of three years and maximum punishment of seven years and fine.

Answer: d

• Which section of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988 deals with the Procedure and powers of special Judge?

A. Section 7 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

B. Section 4 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

C. Section 5 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

D. Section 9 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

Answer – C. Section 5 of The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988

• ____________Act penalizes a public servant for taking gratification to influence the public by illegal means?
  • Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
  • The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
  • The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988

Answer: b

• In order to prosecute a public servant, it is necessary to obtain prior sanction from
  • the central government
  • the state government
  • A or B
  • No prior sanction required

Answer: c

• What is a Public Information Officer?
  • Public authorities have designated some of its officers as Public Information Officer.
  • They are responsible to give information to a person who seeks information under the RTI Act.
  • Both A & B
  • None of the above

Answer: c

• Which of the following works as the “National Central Bureau” of INTERPOL?
  • Central Bureau of Investigation
  • Chief Information Commissioner
  • Ministry of law
  • Central Vigilance Commission

Answer: a

• The Central Bureau of Investigation comes under the—
  • Ministry of Personnel and Training
  • Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • Ministry of Home Affairs
  • Ministry of Law

Answer: a

• Which Committee recommended the establishing of the Central Bureau of Investigation?
  • Santhanam Committee
  • Rajmannar Committee
  • Punchhi Committee
  • None of these

Answer: a

• Which organization is considered the forerunner of CBI?
  • Special Police Establishment
  • Research and Analysis Wing
  • Interpole
  • Intelligence Bureau

Answer: a

• Which is the apex vigilance institution in India
  • CBI
  • CID
  • CVC
  • ED

Answer: c

• How many Vigilance Commissioners are there to assist the Central Vigilance Commissioner?
  • 2
  • 6
  • 4
  • 10

Answer: a

• If the life and liberty of any person is involved, the Public Information Officer is expected to reply for an RTI application within
  • A week
  • 15 days
  • 48 hours
  • 30 days

Answer: c

• Which one of the following is not true about CVC?
  • CVC is only an advisory body
  • CVC does not have powers to register to register criminal case
  • CVC has supervisory powers over CBI
  • CVC is not obliged to provide information under RTI

Answer: d

• The right to information Act specifies time limits for replying to the request. Within how many days the PIO should reply?
  • 10
  • 30
  • 40
  • 45

Answer: b

• Every appeal under the provisions of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 shall be filed within a period of ______ from the date on which a copy of the order made by the Adjudicating Authority or Director is received and it shall be in such form and be accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed.
  • 30 days
  • 45 days
  • 60 days
  • 90 days

Answer: b

• What is the object of the enactment of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?
  • As stated in the Preamble to the Act, it is an Act to prevent money-laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-laundering.
  • As stated in the Preamble to the Act, it is an Act to prevent money-laundering
  • As stated in the Preamble to the Act, it is an Act to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-laundering.
  • None of the above

Answer: a

• ___________ means any property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence or the value of any such property under PMLA
  • Proceeds of crime
  • Illegal Property
  • Tainted property
  • None of the above

Answer: a

• Impacts of Money Laundering include
  • Economic Impacts
  • Social Impacts
  • Political Impacts
  • All of the above

Answer: d

• One of the main functions of Enforcement Directorate (ED) is—
  • It is a law enforcement agency responsible for educating and impart training on economic laws
  • To Investigate offences of money laundering under the provisions of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002(PMLA).
  • Both A and B
  • None of the above

Answer: b

• The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 states that an offence of money laundering has been committed if a person is a—
  • party to any process connected with the proceeds of crime and
  • projects such proceeds as untainted property
  • Both A & B
  • None of the above

Answer: c

• The penalty for committing the offence of money laundering is rigorous imprisonment for
  • three to seven years and a fine of upto Rs 3 lakh
  • three to seven years and a fine of upto Rs 5 lakh
  • three years and a fine of upto Rs 5 lakh
  • seven years and a fine of upto Rs 3 lakh

Answer: b

• The three main authorities involved in inquiring, investigating and prosecuting corruption cases are—
  • the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the state Anti-Corruption Bureau (ACB)
  • the Directorate of Enforcement and the Financial Intelligence Unit, which are under the Ministry of Finance.
  • the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), the Directorate of Enforcement and the state Anti-Corruption Bureau (ACB).
  • the Directorate of Enforcement, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the state Anti-Corruption Bureau (ACB).

Answer: a

• When did The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006, come into force?
  • 21^st April, 2006
  • 23^rd March, 2006
  • 21^st May, 2007
  • 23^rd August 2006

• The FSSAI has now changed the regulations of trans-fatty acids. Choose the correct statement from the following—

(I)      Trans Fatty Acids, TFA in oils and fats to 3% for 2021 and 2%         by 2022

(II)     The current permissible limit is of 5%

• Only I
• Only II
• Both I and II
• None of the above 

Answer: c

{Explanation: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has reduced the levels of trans fatty acids (TFA) in oils and fats to 3% for 2021 and 2% by 2022 from the current permissible limit of 5%. It has been done through an amendment to the Food and Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restriction on Sales) Regulations.}

• Which section of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 deals with the Officers and other employees of Food Authority?

Section 12 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006
Section 9 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006
Section 14 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006
Section 20 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006

Answer: b (Section 9)

• Which section of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006deals with Duties and functions of Food Authority
• Section 16 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006
• Section 14 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006
• Section 13 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006
• Section 18 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006

Answer – A. 

• Section 25 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 deals with __?
  • Food recall procedures
  • All imports of articles of food to be subject to this Act
  • Emergency prohibition notices and orders
  • Liability of Food Safety Officer in certain cases

Answer: b

• According to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, cosmetic means—
  • any article intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled or sprayed on, or introduced into, or otherwise applied to, the human body or any part thereof for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness, or altering the appearance, and
  •  includes any article intended for use as a component of cosmetic
  • Both A and B
  • None of the above

Answer: c

• The administrative structure provided by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, includes—
  • Drugs Technical Advisory Board
  • Drugs Consultative Committee
  • Central Drugs Laboratory & State Drug Control Laboratory
  • Licensing authorities
  • All of the above

Answer: e

• Import of certain drugs or cosmetics can be prohibited by the Central Government, it includes—
  • any drug or cosmetic which is not of standard quality,
  • any misbranded drug or misbranded or spurious cosmetics
  • any adulterated or spurious drug
  • All of the above

Answer: d

• The Central Government has the power to prohibit import of drugs and cosmetics in public interest, if—
  • the Central Government is satisfied that the use of any drug or cosmetic is likely to involve any risk to human beings only.
  • the Central Government is satisfied that the use of any drug or cosmetic is likely to involve any risk to human beings or animals.
  • the drug has therapeutic value.
  • quantity of therapeutic justification not mentioned on the drug or cosmetic.

Answer: b

• The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, regulates—
  • Import drugs and cosmetics.
  • Manufacture drugs and cosmetics.
  • distribution & sale of drugs and cosmetics.
  • All of the above.

Answer: d

• Pesticides, veterinary drugs residues, antibiotic residues and microbiological counts, is provided in section____ of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006.

Section 24 of the Food Safety and Standards Act of India, 2006.

Section 23 of the Food Safety and Standards Act of India, 2006.

Section 22 of the Food Safety and Standards Act of India, 2006.

Section 21 of the Food Safety and Standards Act of India, 2006.

Answer: d

• Material which is or could be employed for the purposes of adulteration, means a/an—
  • adulterated
  • adulterant
  • toxic metal
  • external particle

Answer: b

• An article of food shall be deemed to be adulterated, if—
  • if the article contains any other substance which affects, or if the article is so processed as to affect, injuriously the nature, substance or quality
  • if the article had been prepared, packed or kept under sanitary conditions whereby it has become contaminated or injurious to health
  • Both A and B
  • None of the Above

Answer: a

• The aim if the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, is—
  • the prevention of adulteration of food
  • the prevention of misbranding of food
  • the prevention of importing substandard food
  • All of the above

Answer: a

• As per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, Ayurvedic, Siddha or Unani drug includes all medicines intended for internal or external use for or in the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation or prevention of disease or disorder in human beings or animals, and manufactured exclusively in accordance with the formulae described in the—
  • authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani Tibb system of medicine, listed in the First Schedule
  • authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani Tibb system of medicine, listed in the Second Schedule
  • Notified by Central Government
  • Notified by State Government

Answer: a

• Any article intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled or or sprayed on the human body for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness, or altering the appearance, is a-
  • Drug
  • Cosmetic
  • Ayurvedic drug
  • None of the above

Answer: b

• If a person imports spurious drugs he/she shall be punishable with—
  • Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and a fine upto five thousand rupees.
  • Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years and a fine upto five thousand rupees.
  • Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and a fine upto ten thousand rupees.
  • Imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years and a fine upto three thousand rupees.

Answer: a

• The term of office of the nominated and elected members of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board is for—
  • Two years
  • three years
  • five years
  • None of the above

Answer: b

• The Central Drugs Laboratory carries out the functions entrusted to it by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act or rule. It is under the control of a—
  • Inspector
  • Analyst
  • Advisor
  • Director

Answer: d

• If the product has been substituted partly or wholly by another drug substance, it is known as–
  • Adulterated drug
  • Misbranded drug
  • Spurious Drug
  • Poisonous drug
• Spurious drug is defined in section ____ of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
  • Section 9
  • Section 9 A
  • Section 9 B
  • Section 9 C

Answer: c

• Spurious Drugs mean—
• Imitations of other known drugs.
• Substitutes of earlier known drugs.
• Drugs resembling other known drugs.
  • Only I.
  • Only III.
  • II and III.
  • I, II and III.

Answer: d

• Section 12 of The Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 deals with_______?
  • Functions of Central Advisory Committee.
  • Scientific Committee.
  • Officers and other employees of the Food Authority.
  • General principles to be followed in the administration of the Act.

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https://lawmentor.in/2022/03/15/socio-economic-offences-seo-mcq-part-1/

• Socio- Economic Offences were largely discussed in the 29^th Law Commission Report, of 1966, is also known as—
  • Rajagopalachari Plan
  • Sarkaria Commission
  • Santhanam Committee
  • None of the above

Answer: d

• Socio-Economic Offences deal with—
  • Offences that have an impact on the social, economic and political well-being of society.
  • Offences that have an impact on the social and economic well-being of society.
  • Offences that have an impact on the criminal and economic well-being of society.
  • All of the above.

Answer: b

• The Essential Commodities Act, provides, for the control of the production, supply and distribution of, and trade and commerce, in certain commodities in the interest of the—
  • Manufacturing Units
  • General public,
  • Nation
  • Trade and Commerce

Answer: b

• Under the Essential Commodities Act, an order may be made by the Central Government—
  • for regulating by licences, permits or otherwise the production or manufacture of any essential commodity, for bringing under cultivation any waste or arable land, whether appurtenant to a building or not, for the growing thereon of food-crops generally or of specified food-crops, and for otherwise maintaining or increasing the cultivation of food-crops generally, or of specified food crops.
  • for controlling the price at which any essential commodity may be bought or sold, for regulating by licences, permits or otherwise the storage, transport, distribution, disposal, acquisition, use or consumption of, any essential commodity.
  • for prohibiting the withholding from sale of any essential commodity ordinarily kept for sale.
  • All of the above

Answer: d

• Persons engaged in the production, supply or distribution of or trade and commerce in, any essential commodity do not maintain books of accounts and records relating to their business and to furnish such information, would make such persons liable—
  • with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year and shall also be liable to fine
  • with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years and shall also be liable to fine
  • with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine
  • with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years and shall also be liable to fine

Answer: a

• According to the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act 2020 the central government may regulate the supply of certain food items including cereals, pulses, potato, onions, edible oilseeds, and oils, only under extraordinary circumstances, such as—
  • war,
  • famine,
  • extraordinary price rise and natural calamity of grave nature
  • All of the above

Answer: d

• The main purpose of the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act 2020 was—
  • Imposition of limit on stock only under exceptional circumstances such as famine or other calamities
  • deregulate agricultural produce like pulses, onion, potato and cereals, edible oils, and oilseeds
  • Both A and B
  • None of the above

Answer: c

• As per the Essential Commodities Act, food-crops include crops of—
  • Sugarcane
  • cereals, pulses, potato, onions
  • Groundnut
  • Jute

Answer: a

• The Collector may order confiscation of essential commodity of—
  • the essential commodity so seized,
  • any package, covering or receptacle in which such essential commodity is found, and
  • any animal, vehicle, vessel or other conveyance used in carrying such essential commodity
  • All of the above

Answer: d

• Every offence punishable under the Essential Commodities Act, is—
  • Cognizable
  • Non-cognizable
  • Compoundable
  • All of the above

Answer: a

• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 provides for action against _________ activities.
  • Anti-social
  • Consumer
  • Social
  • Both a and b

Answer: d

• Does Indian law impose any restriction on inter-state movement, distribution and trade of essential commodities?
  • Yes
  • No
  • Maybe
  • None of the Above

Answer: b

• Is Maximum Retail Price applicable to essential commodities?
  • Yes, for non-perishable commodities MRP is decided
  • Yes, for perishable commodities MRP is decided
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Answer: a

• Once an order is made or approved of by the State Government under Section 3 of the Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980 the State Government shall inform the Central Government together with the grounds on which the order has been made and such other particulars, within a period of
  • 30 days
  • 7 days
  • No information is needed to be sent
  • 6 months only

Answer: b

• Detention Orders under the Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980 are not invalid or inoperative on certain grounds such as—
  • that the person to be detained hereunder is outside the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the Government or officer making the order, or
  • that the place of detention of such person is outside the said limits
  • only b
  • both a and b

Answer: d

• Advisory Board under the PBMMSEC Act comprises—
  • 3 persons
  • 4 persons
  • 2 persons
  • 5 persons

Answer: a

• Recently, the government amended the schedule of which Act to declare face masks and hand sanitizers as essential commodities?
  • Essential Commodities Act 1955
  • Essential Commodities Act 1965
  • Essential Commodities Act 1975
  • Essential Commodities Act 1985

Answer: a

• Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980 provides for the following—
  • certain officers of the Central and State governments to pass orders to detain persons who seek to control the production, supply or distribution of, or trade and commerce in any commodity which is an essential commodity
  • contains provisions on the manner in which these detention orders may be executed and grants the power to the Central and State governments to set up Advisory Boards to oversee the detention orders.
  • Only a
  • Both a and b

Answer: d

• Under the Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980, detaining order may be passed by—
  • District Magistrates, Commissioners of Police under section 3(2)
  • Chief Minister’s office and Police Commissioner
  • Only a
  • None of the above

Answer: a

• Metrology is defined as Science of _________

Measurement

Instrument

Inspection

Calibration

Ans. a

• The study of scientific metrology deals with—

a. accuracy and methods of measurement

b. Standard Specification

c. theories related to nature

d. all of the above

Ans. c

• How many languages can be used for making the declarations under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009?

a. only English

b. only Hindi

c. only English and Hindi

d. Any Language

Answer: d

• As per Legal Metrology Act, How many Mandatory declarations are printed on the label of your company products?

a. Six                                                                      

b. Seven

c. Eight

d. Nine

Answer: d

• In case of issue in statutory label declarations, what are the penalties for second offence under the legal Metrology Act?
  • 25,000/-
  • 50,000/-
  • 75,000/-
  • 1,00,000/-

Answer: a